Its an interesting question IMO and one born out of another topic that was discussing where "stop evil with your hands" ends and where "there is no compulsion in religion" starts.
We have 30 odd years of the application of Islamic law we can look back on that we all will agree with and not call the application in these circumstances into question...
So... during the Khitafat Rashidah, were Non Muslims allowed to drink alcohol?
Anyone read about it being banned for Christians/Jews/Others from drinking alcohol?
I would assume that if there is no recording of it being banned, it must have been a non issue and thus allowed.
Khitafat Rashidah.
?
Rightly guided caliphs - the first 5.
"For too long, we have been a passively tolerant society, saying to our citizens 'as long as you obey the law, we will leave you alone'" - David Cameron, UK Prime Minister. 13 May 2015.
:S and they were...?
"How many people find fault in what they're reading and the fault is in their own understanding" Al Mutanabbi
We also accept Amir Mu'awiya (ra), but that rule for some reason is not included in the khilafat rashida period.
"For too long, we have been a passively tolerant society, saying to our citizens 'as long as you obey the law, we will leave you alone'" - David Cameron, UK Prime Minister. 13 May 2015.
ok tnx.
I think i've of heard, Amir Mu'wiya(ra). i shall google him
"How many people find fault in what they're reading and the fault is in their own understanding" Al Mutanabbi
when there was an islamic state, was everybody living in the islamic land muslim?
sorry if thats a stupid question i just dano the answer.
nope - not everyone was Muslim.
"For too long, we have been a passively tolerant society, saying to our citizens 'as long as you obey the law, we will leave you alone'" - David Cameron, UK Prime Minister. 13 May 2015.
but they all lived under shariah law?
During the Khilafah Rashidha and Ummayad and Abbasid Khilafah, the majority were Muslims and Sharia was enforced generally on them. The minorities were Christians and Jews who were permitted from the time of the Prophet(saw) to establish their own religious communities in parallel with their own judges who judged by their religion. Outside of that the Islamic laws were enforced on all (eg theft, embezzlement, contracts etc).
During the Ottoman rule, the majority became non-Muslims esp. of eastern europe which became provinces.
Does not matter if they were generally non Muslim or Muslim - it is wether the laws RE alcohol were enforced upon non Muslims or not.
On the issue of majority Muslim or not - it took a couple of centuries before persia had a significant/majority Muslim population, but the majority within the arabian peninsula were Muslim. More, since we can say about later caliphs etc "oh, but he was not acting within the laws/spirit of Islam", I decided to keep the time period to the khilafat rashidah as we will both (all) agree on its righteous rule.
I never asked about what was applied for crimes upon another individual, but about alcohol. Maybe it was banned upon Non Muslims - especially if it was outside
"For too long, we have been a passively tolerant society, saying to our citizens 'as long as you obey the law, we will leave you alone'" - David Cameron, UK Prime Minister. 13 May 2015.